PDF CNX-001 VCE - How to Prepare for CompTIA CNX-001 Efficiently and Easily
PDF CNX-001 VCE - How to Prepare for CompTIA CNX-001 Efficiently and Easily
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Tags: PDF CNX-001 VCE, CNX-001 Customized Lab Simulation, CNX-001 New Question, CNX-001 Pass4sure Exam Prep, CNX-001 Test Result
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CompTIA CNX-001 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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CompTIA CloudNetX Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q11-Q16):
NEW QUESTION # 11
An organization with an on-premises data center is adopting additional cloud-based solutions. The organization wants to keep communication secure between remote employees' devices and workloads. Which of the following ZTA features best achieves this goal?
- A. Principle of least privilege
- B. Identity as the perimeter
- C. Cloud access security broker
- D. Secure service edge
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
"Identity as the perimeter" is a core principle of Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA). Rather than relying on traditional network-based perimeters, access is granted based on user identity and device posture. This is essential for remote users accessing cloud workloads, ensuring secure authentication regardless of physical location.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Zero Trust and Identity- Centric Security":
"Zero Trust shifts the trust boundary from the network to the user and device identity. 'Identity as the perimeter' ensures only verified users and devices are granted access to resources." Other options:
* A. Secure service edge (SSE) is a broad cloud security model, but not a specific ZTA principle.
* B. CASBs monitor cloud app usage, not core access authentication.
* C. Principle of least privilege is a supporting concept, but not the primary perimeter defense mechanism.
NEW QUESTION # 12
A network administrator recently deployed new Wi-Fi 6E access points in an office and enabled 6GHz coverage. Users report that when they are connected to the new 6GHz SSID, the performance is worse than the 5GHz SSID. The network administrator suspects that there is a source of 6GHz interference in the office.
Using the troubleshooting methodology, which of the following actions should the network administrator do next?
- A. Document the list of channels that are experiencing interference.
- B. Use a spectrum analyzer and check the 6GHz spectrum.
- C. Test to see if the changes have improved network performance.
- D. Change the channels being used by the 6GHz radios in the APs.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Using a spectrum analyzer to inspect the 6GHz frequency range allows the administrator to confirm the presence and source of interference. This step aligns with the "identify the problem" phase of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology. Before making changes or documenting channels, the administrator must validate whether interference exists and collect diagnostic data.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Troubleshooting Methodology and Wireless Interference":
"Spectrum analyzers provide a visual representation of frequency usage and interference in wireless bands, allowing administrators to isolate the root cause of degraded performance before implementing corrective actions." Other options:
* A. Testing performance (Step 5 in the methodology) comes after identifying and resolving the issue.
* C. Documentation is performed during the final step of troubleshooting.
* D. Changing channels without evidence may worsen interference if the problem is not confirmed.
NEW QUESTION # 13
End users are getting certificate errors and are unable to connect to an application deployed in a cloud. The application requires HTTPS connection. A network solution architect finds that a firewall is deployed between end users and the application in the cloud. Which of the following is the root cause of the issue?
- A. The firewall has port 443 blocked while SSL/HTTPS inspection is enabled.
- B. The firewall on the application server has port 443 blocked.
- C. The end users do not have certificates on their laptops.
- D. The firewall has an expired certificate while SSL/HTTPS inspection is enabled.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
When SSL/HTTPS inspection is enabled on a firewall, it intercepts and decrypts HTTPS traffic. This requires the firewall to present its own trusted certificate to the client device. If that certificate is expired, the client browser will display a certificate error and block access to the application. This is a common misconfiguration that breaks HTTPS communication.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "TLS/SSL Inspection and Certificate Management":
"SSL inspection appliances must have valid certificates installed. Expired or untrusted certificates will result in browsers rejecting the HTTPS session and displaying errors to users." Other options:
* A. Would prevent connection, but not result in certificate errors.
* B. Blocked port 443 would prevent any connection, not cause cert errors.
* C. Client-side certificates are not required unless mutual TLS is configured, which is not stated here.
NEW QUESTION # 14
A customer asks a MSP to propose a ZTA (Zero Trust Architecture) design for its globally distributed remote workforce. Given the following requirements:
* Authentication should be provided through the customer's SAML identity provider.
* Access should not be allowed from countries where the business does not operate.
* Secondary authentication should be added to the workflow to allow for passkeys.
* Changes to the user's device posture and hygiene should require reauthentication into the network.
* Access to the network should only be allowed to originate from corporate-owned devices.
Which of the following solutions should the MSP recommend to meet the requirements?
- A. Enforce certificate-based authentication.
Permit unauthenticated remote connectivity only from corporate IP addresses.
Enable geofencing.
Use cookie-based session tokens that do not expire for remembering user log-ins.
Increase RADIUS server timeouts. - B. Chain the existing identity provider to a new SAML.
Require the use of time-based one-time passcode hardware tokens.
Enable debug logging on the VPN clients by default.
Disconnect users from the network only if their IP address changes. - C. Configure geolocation settings to block certain IP addresses.
Enforce MFA.
Federate the solution via SSO.
Enable continuous access policies on the WireGuard tunnel.
Create a trusted endpoints policy. - D. Enforce posture assessment only during the initial network log-on.
Implement RADIUS for SSO.
Restrict access from all non-U.S. IP addresses.
Configure a BYOD access policy.
Disable auditing for remote access.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
D includes all the key elements of Zero Trust:
* MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) supports secondary passkey-based authentication.
* Geolocation settings enforce geo-restrictions.
* SSO federation allows use of an existing SAML identity provider.
* Continuous access policies support dynamic reauthentication based on changes in posture.
* Trusted endpoint policies ensure only corporate-owned, compliant devices are allowed to connect.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Zero Trust Architecture and Identity Management":
"ZTA enforces continuous access policies that monitor session state, posture, and user behavior."
"Federated identity with SSO and posture-based trust evaluation are core ZTA components."
"Geo-restrictions and trusted endpoint policies limit exposure and enforce device compliance." Other options:
* A uses static session tokens and disables timely expiration, violating Zero Trust principles.
* B allows BYOD and disables auditing, which conflicts with compliance and monitoring.
NEW QUESTION # 15
A network engineer adds a large group of servers to a screened subnet and configures them to use IPv6 only.
The servers need to seamlessly communicate with IPv4 servers on the internal networks. Which of the following actions is the best way to achieve this goal?
- A. Set up a bridge between the screened subnet and internal networks to handle the conversion.
- B. Change the servers in the screened subnet from IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
- C. Add IPv6 to the network cards on the internal servers so they can communicate with the screened subnet.
- D. Implement NAT64 on the router between the screened subnet and the internal network.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
NAT64 allows IPv6-only devices to communicate with IPv4-only systems. It translates IPv6 addresses to IPv4 and vice versa. This is essential in mixed environments where backward compatibility is needed, and cannot be resolved simply by dual-stacking or bridging.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "IP Version Compatibility and Translation":
"NAT64 allows seamless communication between IPv6-only clients and IPv4-only servers by translating address formats and protocol headers." Other options:
* A. Adding IPv6 to internal servers requires changes to all internal devices and does not scale well.
* B. Bridging does not handle protocol translation.
* C. Changing IPv6 servers back to IPv4 violates the requirement for IPv6-only configuration.
NEW QUESTION # 16
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